Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that
best completes the statement or answers the question.
A
B
C
D
1.
Which
of the following is NOT a goal of science?
a.
to investigate and understand
nature
b.
to explain events
in nature
c.
to use data to
support a particular point of view
d.
to use derived explanations to make useful
predictions
A
B
C
D
2.
The
work of scientists begins with
a.
testing a hypothesis.
b.
careful observations.
c.
creating experiments.
d.
drawing conclusions.
A
B
C
D
3.
Science differs from other disciplines, such as history and the arts, because science
relies on
a.
facts.
b.
testing explanations.
c.
observations.
d.
theories.
A
B
C
D
4.
Information gathered from observing a plant grow 3 cm over a two-week period results
in
a.
inferences.
b.
variables.
c.
hypotheses.
d.
data.
A
B
C
D
5.
You
state that the presence of water could accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is
a(an)
a.
conclusion.
b.
hypothesis.
c.
experiment.
d.
analysis.
A
B
C
D
6.
A
hypothesis
a.
can be completely
proven.
b.
may be disproved
by a single experiment.
c.
does not have to be tested to be accepted as probably
correct.
d.
is a proven
fact.
A
B
C
D
7.
Hypotheses may arise from
a.
prior knowledge.
b.
logical inferences.
c.
imaginative guesses.
d.
all of the above
A
B
C
D
8.
Which
of the following is a valid hypothesis for why a plant appears to be dying?
a.
The plant is not being watered
enough.
b.
The plant is
being watered too much.
c.
The plant is receiving too much
sunlight.
d.
all of the
above
A
B
C
D
9.
In
science, a hypothesis is useful only if
a.
it is proven correct.
b.
it can be proven incorrect.
c.
it can be tested.
d.
the explanation is already
known.
A
B
C
D
10.
Which
of the following is NOT a part of doing science?
a.
experimenting
b.
observing
c.
generalizing
d.
hypothesizing
A
B
C
D
11.
Which
of the following variables present in Redis experiment on spontaneous generation is NOT a
controlled variable?
a.
gauze covering that keeps flies away from
meat
b.
types of jars
used
c.
types of meat
used
d.
temperature at
which the jars were stored
A
B
C
D
12.
A
controlled experiment allows the scientist to isolate and test
a.
a conclusion.
b.
a mass of information.
c.
several variables.
d.
a single variable.
A
B
C
D
13.
Scientists publish the details of important experiments so that
a.
their work can be repeated.
b.
their experimental procedures can be
reviewed.
c.
others can try to
reproduce the results.
d.
all of the above
A
B
C
D
14.
The
ability to reproduce results is an important part of any
a.
hypothesis.
b.
theory.
c.
law.
d.
experiment.
A
B
C
D
15.
When
enough experimental data supports a hypothesis, the hypothesis becomes a(an)
a.
fact.
b.
theory.
c.
inference.
d.
conclusion.
A
B
C
D
16.
A
theory
a.
is always
true.
b.
is the opening
statement of an experiment.
c.
may be revised or replaced.
d.
is a problem to be solved.
A
B
C
D
17.
Which
of the following theories are needed to explain why marsupial mammals are found only in
Australia?
a.
theory of
evolution
b.
theory of plate
tectonics
c.
both a and
b
d.
neither a nor
b
A
B
C
D
18.
A
well-tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations is a(an)
a.
hypothesis.
b.
inference.
c.
theory.
d.
controlled experiment.
A
B
C
D
19.
Biology is the study of
a.
the land, water, and air on
Earth.
b.
the living
world.
c.
animals and
plants only.
d.
the
environment.
A
B
C
D
20.
Which
of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?
a.
growth and development
b.
ability to move
c.
response to the environment
d.
ability to reproduce
A
B
C
D
21.
Which
of the following characteristics of living things best explains why birds fly south for the
winter?
a.
Living things
respond to their environment.
b.
Living things maintain internal
balance.
c.
Living things are
made up of units called cells.
d.
Living things are based on a universal genetic
code.
A
B
C
D
22.
Which
of the following conditions is necessary for a population of bison to survive?
a.
All of its organisms must
reproduce.
b.
Some of its
organisms must reproduce.
c.
All of its organisms must live in the same
place.
d.
All of its
organisms must live to old age.
A
B
C
D
23.
The
amount of light and temperature are examples of
a.
factors necessary for life.
b.
methods of energy production.
c.
factors to which living things
respond.
d.
factors that
affect reproduction.
A
B
C
D
24.
The
process by which organisms keep their internal conditions relatively stable is
called
a.
homeostasis.
b.
evolution.
c.
metabolism.
d.
photosynthesis.
A
B
C
D
25.
What
is the term for the land, water, and air on Earth?
a.
population
b.
ecosystem
c.
biosphere
d.
environment
A
B
C
D
26.
What
is the term for a group of organisms of one type living in the same place?
a.
biosphere
b.
ecosystem
c.
population
d.
environment
A
B
C
D
27.
Which
of the following terms includes all the others?
a.
biologist
b.
botanist
c.
zoologist
d.
ethologist
A
B
C
D
28.
Which
level of organization includes all of the other levels?
a.
organism
b.
ecosystem
c.
population
d.
community
A
B
C
D
29.
In the
metric system, the basic unit of length is the
a.
centimeter.
b.
kilometer.
c.
millimeter.
d.
meter.
A
B
C
D
30.
How
many centimeters are there in 2.4 km?
a.
2400
b.
2,400
c.
24,000
d.
240,000
A
B
C
D
31.
On the
Celsius temperature scale, how many degrees are between the freezing and boiling points of
water?
A
B
C
D
32.
Which
is NOT a unit of measurement in the metric system?
a.
meter
b.
inch
c.
liter
d.
gram
A
B
C
D
33.
The
basic unit of mass in SI is the
a.
meter.
b.
ounce.
c.
liter.
d.
gram.
A
B
C
D
34.
To
observe a small living organism, a scientist might use a(an)
a.
electronic balance.
b.
TEM.
c.
compound light microscope.
d.
electron microscope.
A
B
C
D
35.
The
use of a compound light microscope
a.
is necessary to study biology at the chemical
level.
b.
is required for
most experiments.
c.
has expanded the study of
biology.
d.
is an essential
tool for producing three-dimensional images.
A
B
C
D
36.
Which
of the following is the best reason for using a scanning electron microscope?
a.
ability to magnify objects that are larger than 0.2
micrometers
b.
ability to
observe live organisms
c.
ability to see three-dimensional images of the surfaces of
objects
d.
ability to see
movement within living cells
A
B
C
D
37.
An
instrument that allows light to pass through the specimen and uses two lenses to form an image is
a(an)
a.
compound light
microscope.
b.
electron
microscope.
c.
TEM.
d.
SEM.
A
B
C
D
38.
What
technique is used to separate the different cell parts?
a.
microscopy
b.
cell culture
c.
cell fractionation
d.
all of the above
A
B
C
D
39.
Safety
procedures are important when working
a.
in a laboratory.
b.
in the field.
c.
with animals.
d.
all of the above
A
B
C
D
40.
What
types of living organisms should you NOT come into contact with in your biology
laboratory?
a.
plants
b.
organisms that cause disease
c.
organisms that can only be seen with a
microscope
d.
animals
A
B
C
D
41.
The
three particles that make up an atom are
a.
protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
b.
neutrons, isotopes, and
electrons.
c.
positive,
negatives, and electrons.
d.
protons, neutrons, and
electrons.
A
B
C
D
42.
The
space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
protons.
b.
electrons.
c.
neutrons.
d.
ions.
A
B
C
D
43.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
were composed of electrons.
b.
were composed of protons.
c.
could be divided.
d.
could not be divided.
A
B
C
D
44.
The
nucleus is made up of
a.
protons and electrons.
b.
electrons and neutrons.
c.
protons and neutrons.
d.
protons, neutrons, and
electrons.
A
B
C
D
45.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons
and
a.
a different number of
electrons.
b.
a different
number of molecules.
c.
a different number of neutrons.
d.
the same number of neutrons.
A
B
C
D
46.
If an
atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
A
B
C
D
47.
Which
of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in
definite proportions?
a.
compound
b.
isotope
c.
nucleus
d.
enzyme
A
B
C
D
48.
A
covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
transferring electrons.
b.
sharing an electron pair.
c.
transferring protons.
d.
sharing a proton pair.
A
B
C
D
49.
What
type of electrons is available to form bonds?
a.
valence
b.
nucleus
c.
ionic
d.
covalent
A
B
C
D
50.
What
type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
neutral
b.
positive
c.
negative
d.
possibly positive or negative
A
B
C
D
51.
The
most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
carbon dioxide.
b.
water.
c.
sodium chloride.
d.
sugar.
A
B
C
D
52.
Water
molecules are polar, with
a.
the oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen
side being slightly negative.
b.
the oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly
positive.
c.
the oxygen and
hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
the oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen
side being slightly positive.
A
B
C
D
53.
A
solution is a(an)
a.
breaking of a
chemical bond.
b.
chemical
reaction.
c.
evenly-distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
combination of two or more
liquids.
A
B
C
D
54.
If the
pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
both would be below 7.
b.
both would be above 7.
c.
the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of
oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of
oven cleaner would be above 7.
A
B
C
D
55.
A
substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
an acid.
b.
a base.
c.
both an acid and a base.
d.
neither an acid nor a base.
A
B
C
D
56.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure
water
a.
have pH values below
7.
b.
are
acids.
c.
are
bases.
d.
are
enzymes.
A
B
C
D
57.
Amino
acid is to protein as
a.
fat is to lipid.
b.
DNA is to RNA.
c.
sugar is to fat.
d.
simple sugar is to starch.
A
B
C
D
58.
A
monosaccharide is a
a.
carbohydrate.
b.
lipid.
c.
nucleic acid.
d.
protein.
A
B
C
D
59.
Which
of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a.
carbohydrates
b.
lipids
c.
nucleic acids
d.
proteins
A
B
C
D
60.
Which
of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
store and transmit heredity
b.
help to fight disease
c.
control the rate of reactions and regulate cell
processes
d.
build tissues
such as bone and muscle
A
B
C
D
61.
When
hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water would be
a.
a product.
b.
a reactant.
c.
both a product and a reactant.
d.
neither a product nor a
reactant.
A
B
C
D
62.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2 O
® H2 CO3 .
a.
CO2 , H2 O, and
H2 CO3
b.
CO2 and
H2 O
c.
H2 CO3
d.
CO2
A
B
C
D
63.
What
is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
adhesion energy
b.
activation energy
c.
cohesion energy
d.
chemical energy
A
B
C
D
64.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
will not occur.
b.
will sometimes occur.
c.
will always explode.
d.
often occur spontaneously.
A
B
C
D
65.
If a
reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
also releases energy.
b.
absorbs energy.
c.
destroys energy.
d.
cannot occur.
A
B
C
D
66.
Which
of the following is a form of energy released during a chemical reaction?
a.
heat
b.
sound
c.
light
d.
all of the above
A
B
C
D
67.
Which
of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
Enzymes work best at a specified
pH.
b.
All enzymes work
inside cells.
c.
Enzymes are
proteins.
d.
Enzymes are
organic catalysts.
A
B
C
D
68.
Which
of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical
reactions.
b.
All catalysts are
enzymes.
c.
Catalysts are
used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical
reaction.
A
B
C
D
69.
A
substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
catalyst.
b.
lipid.
c.
molecule.
d.
element.
A
B
C
D
70.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
products of the reaction.
b.
speed of the reaction.
c.
temperature of the reaction.
d.
pH of the reaction.